Path: utzoo!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!rutgers!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: davidbu@tekigm2.men.tek.com (David Buxton) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Eternal Law of God (Why the Mosaic Law) Message-ID: Date: 5 Oct 89 03:13:52 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: Tektronix Inc., Beaverton, Or. Lines: 88 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu The mosaic law is never equated with the eternal moral code which operated from the very beginning of human history. Although they were not written down until Mount Sinai, the Law of God was understood and honored by the earliest patriarchs. It is impossible for sin to exist where there is no law. The Bible teaches, "for where no law is, there is no transgression" (Rom. 4:15). Again we are told, "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law" (1 John 3:4). This principle is amplified further by Paul's statement that "I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet" (Rom. 7:7). These verses nail down the truth that no sin can be imputed where the ten- commandment law is not in effect. God's statement to Cain about "sin lying at the door" (Gen. 4:7) was in reference to his killing Abel, a violation of one of those commandments. This is proof that the moral law was in effect at that early date. Later, Joseph revealed that he was aware of the binding claims of that same law. he said to Potiphar's wife, "how then can I do this great wickedness, and sin against God?" (Gen. 39:9). He knew adultery was sin. Abraham was commended by God in these words: "Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws" (Gen. 26:5). It is very obvious that the law which Abraham faithfully obeyed was not the law of Moses, because that law was not given until 430 years later. And we have just established that the ten commandments existed before Abraham, condemning even Cain for murder. Neither is it possible for us to conceive that great, godly Abraham was not acquainted with the basic issues of right and wrong contained in the ten commandments. It is absolutely certain that another law was added 430 years later, and it was in addition to the one Abraham kept so diligently. "And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect" (Gal 3:17). The context of this verse indicates that Paul is talking about the ceremonial law rather than the moral law of the ten commandments. In verse 10, he refers to the curses "which are written in the book of the law." We know this had to be the mosaic law because, as we have already noted, there are no curses recorded in the law written on stone. Can we find further confirmation that this later law was indeed the law of Moses? The answer rests in Gal. 3:19. "Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions till the seed should come to whom the promise was made . . . " Here we have two significant facts set forth concerning the law which was added. We are told why it was given and also how long it would remain in effect. These two bits of information will be considered very carefully since they contain compelling evidence in the case. FIRST: WHY WAS IT GIVEN? The verse clearly states that it was "added because of transgressions." This is most revealing because we have just established that "where no law is, there is no transgression" (Rom. 4:15). One can't be guilty of transgressing a law which does not exist. In this case, one law obviously did exist; and it had been "transgressed," making it necessary to add another law 430 years after God's covenant with Abraham. And since it is recorded that "Abraham obeyed . . . my laws" (Gen. 26:5), we have to believe that that earlier law, which Abraham observed, was the ten commandments. Moses had not yet been born, and it could not have been his law. So what must we conclude from this evidence? The ten commandments had been transgressed, making it necessary to add the ceremonial law. Upon reflection, this makes a lot of sense. If a law is made forbidding murder, and it is broken, then another law would have to be enacted to prescribe the penalty or punishment for breaking that first law. We have already established that the ten commandments contained no curses (penalties) or judgments (punishments), but the mosiac law was characterized by those very things. SECOND: HOW LONG DID THIS "ADDED" LAW REMAIN IN EFFECT? The Scripture says , "Till the seed should come." There is no controversy over the identity of that seed. It is Christ. But do we have evidence that the law which was blotted out and nailed to the cross was indeed the law of Moses? Whichever law it was, it is designated as the "handwriting of ordinances." Nowhere are the ten commandments identified as ordinances. That term is applied to local legal codes which are very narrow and limited, such as "town ordinances" which extend only to the city limits. In comparison, the ten commandments are more like the constitution of the United States. I tinkered with Joe Crews' material a little bit. by Joe Crews Amazing Facts P.O. Box 680 Frederick, Md 21701