Path: utzoo!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!mailrus!ames!ncar!boulder!tramp!kuo
From: kuo@tramp.Colorado.EDU (Andy Y.A. Kuo)
Newsgroups: comp.sys.apple
Subject: Conversion (was Re: FPE and a transwarp gs)
Message-ID: <12787@boulder.Colorado.EDU>
Date: 15 Oct 89 21:28:06 GMT
References: <8910111039.AA15764@trout.nosc.mil>
Sender: news@boulder.Colorado.EDU
Reply-To: kuo@tramp.Colorado.EDU (Andy Y.A. Kuo)
Organization: University of Colorado, Boulder
Lines: 23

In article <8910111039.AA15764@trout.nosc.mil> jabernathy@pro-houston.cts.com (Joe Abernathy) writes:

>[...lines deleted...]
>(In particular, the formula is always Macintosh
>MHz/4 = Apple II.)

>[...lined deleted...]
>publishing -- machines such as the Apple II and IBM clones have a dramatic
>performance advantage over Macintosh.   ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^

>[....lines deleted...]
>is generally: IBM MHz/5 = Apple II


I was just wondering, if these hardware(?) conversion is true, then
the speed of a (4Mhz AppleII)=(16Mhz Mac)=(20Mhz IBM).

Which means a Mac is faster than IBM(at the same Mhz), but you also 
mentioned that IBM clones have dramatic performance advantage over Mac.

Is the conversion wrong?

Also, do you mean you run GS/OS, windows..etc on the GS or plain text?