Path: utzoo!attcan!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!mailrus!tut.cis.ohio-state.edu!gem.mps.ohio-state.edu!brutus.cs.uiuc.edu!apple!sun-barr!newstop!texsun!texbell!sugar!ficc!finco From: finco@ficc.uu.net (gary finco) Newsgroups: comp.protocols.tcp-ip Subject: Re: Router interoperability Summary: It eliminates finger-pointing!!! Message-ID: <6641@ficc.uu.net> Date: 23 Oct 89 16:01:34 GMT References: <89Oct17.165048edt.57354@ugw.utcs.utoronto.ca> Organization: Ferranti International Controls Lines: 22 In article <89Oct17.165048edt.57354@ugw.utcs.utoronto.ca>, FILLMORE@EMRCAN.BITNET writes: > I have a (perhaps naive) question about the interoperability of routers: > We want to join Ethernet LANs in two different cities with a 56kbps sync > line. The LANs run a variety of protocols such as XNS, TCP/IP, Decnet. > We want to use routers at each end of the line. Do the two routers > have to be from the same manufacturer? If so, why? One of the routers > is a Cisco box but the other could be Proteon or some other make > (or does it have to be a Cisco?). > ________________________ After talking to both Cisco and Proteon about the same question, I was told that it is recommended that the routers be from the same manufacturer at both ends of the link. The reason they gave me was that they have their own data link implementation which most likely will not match exactly with a different vendor's. I also feel that having one vendor per link will eliminate the finger pointing that could arise from a failure to communicate. Disclaimer: I speak for myself and no one speaks for me. gjf