Path: utzoo!attcan!uunet!samsung!brutus.cs.uiuc.edu!rpi!uwm.edu!rutgers!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: davidbu@tekigm2.men.tek.com (David Buxton) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: To Fulfill the Law Message-ID: Date: 19 Nov 89 19:38:10 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: Tektronix Inc., Beaverton, Or. Lines: 32 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu [In response to a question about how Paul could have justified his idea that the Law was ended, I suggested a couple of answers. One is that Jesus didn't abolish the Law, but the Law was part of a covenant with the Jews, and applied only to them. --clh] How can this be when we see so many places where Paul, as a Christian after Jesus has returned to His Father, speaking with such high regard for the 'law'. Paul spoke as a Christian to an audiance of Christians plus those that he wished to convert to Christianity. > He certainly contrasts the covenant with Moses -- which involves the Law > -- with the covenant with Abraham -- which is based on faith. Note > also the comment in Mat 5:18 that nothing will pass from the law > "until all is accomplished". My Bible clearly says - not until heaven and earth pass away. Sounds to me like the 2nd Coming of Jesus. And there are texts that for example say clearly that the Sabbath will be kept in heaven. > There is some evidence for a Jewish > exegetical tradition saying that in the end times, the Law will no > longer be valid. Paul may have thought that in Christ's death "all is > accomplished", and the Law no longer applies. --clh] Which nuiance of the 'law' will not be valid? Certainly not God's law written by His own hand. And again - Paul in enough places speaks so highly of the 'law'. Dave (David E. Buxton) davidbu@tekigm2.MEN.TEK.COM