Path: utzoo!attcan!utgpu!jarvis.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!rice!oxy.edu!hakim%bigq.enet.dec.com From: hakim%bigq.enet.dec.com@oxy.edu Newsgroups: soc.religion.islam Subject: Re: On the Meaning of "Muhammad the Seal of the Prophets" (II of VI) Message-ID: <3396@brazos.Rice.edu> Date: 4 Dec 89 22:46:38 GMT Sender: root@rice.edu Lines: 124 Approved: shari@wpi.edu Continuation from part I: Muhammad, (Peace be upon Him!), has been referred to as Khatam'u-Nabieen in the Qur'an: "Muhammad is not the father of any man among you, but he is the Apostle of God, and the seal of the prophets: and God knoweth all things." [The Confederates: 39] This has been interpreted by many among Muslims to mean that Revelation from God ended with Muhammad's Revelation, and the door of God's mercy towards mankind was closed for ever. Interestingly enough, Muslims are not the only people who hold such belief. Historically Jews and Christians have based on their Scriptures maintained the belief that their religions is the final religion, and their code of law is the last set of revealed law from God. Jews will argue that they are required by Exodus 31:16-17 to keep the Sabbath as an eternal covenant: "Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the Sabbath, to observe the Sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual Covenant. It is a sign between Me (i.e. God) and the children of Israel." Both Jesus and Muhammad broke the Sabbath. Does this mean that they were wrong? Or, God forbid, they were false prophets? Jesus has been referred to in the Book of Revelation 1:11, as Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last. Likewise He is recorded to have said in Luke 21:33; "Heaven and earth shall pass away: but My words shall not pass away." As a result Christians, have based on these verses believe that the revelation of Jesus is the final revelation from God. If Jesus was to be the Last, why did Muhammad appear after Him? If the words of Jesus were not to be changed, then why did Muhammad reveal the Qur'an? Are we to side with Jews, Christians or Muslims in their belief? Is the concept of finality of religion real, or, is there perhaps another explanation for these verses found in the Holy Books of the past! Baha'u'llah addresses this issue as follows: `....For this reason, hath the Point of Baya'n [i.e. a title of The Ba'b, the Qa'im, or Mihdi of the House of Muhammad, the Forerunner of Baha'u'llah].... likened the Manifestations of God [i.e. Messengers of God] unto the sun which, though it rise from the "Beginning that hath no beginning" until the "End that knoweth no end," is none the less the same sun. Now, wert thou to say, that this sun is the former sun, thou speakest the truth; and if thou sayest that this sun is the "return" of that sun, thou also speakest the truth. Likewise, from this statement it is made evident that the term "last" is applicable to the "first," and the term "first" applicable to the "last;" inasmuch as both the "first" and the "last" have risen to proclaim the same Faith. Notwithstanding the obviousness of this theme, in the eyes of those that have quaffed the wine of knowledge and certitude, yet how many are those who, through failure to understand its meaning, have allowed the term "Seal of the Prophets" to obscure their understanding,and deprive them of the grace of all His manifold bounties! Hath not Muhammad, Himself, declared: "I am all the Prophets?" Hath He not said...: "I am Adam, Noah, Moses, and Jesus?" Why should Muhammad, that immortal Beauty, Who hath said: "I am the first Adam" be incapable of saying also: "I am the last Adam"? For even as He regarded Himself to be the "First of the Prophets" -That is Adam- in like manner, the "Seal of the Prophets" is also applicable unto that Divine Beauty. It is admittedly obvious that being the "First of the Prophets," He likewise is their "Seal". Iqan, Book of Certitude p. 161-162 The following verse of the Holy Qur'an appears to support this point as well: "Say ye: `We believe in God, and that which hath been sent down to us, and that which hath been sent down to Abraham and Ishmael and Isaac and Jacob and the tribes: and that which hath been given to Moses, and to Jesus, and that which was given to the Prophets from their Lord. No difference do we make between any of them." Al'Baghara-2:130 There must be a deeper meaning to the term Khatam'u-Nabieen than its apparent meaning (i.e. the Author of last Revelation from God). Before I start to discuss the various views on the meaning of Khatam'u-Nabieen, I'd like to discuss the various classifications of prophets from the perspective of Islam. The Muslim Scripture classifies the intermediaries between man and God into three groups: 1- Nabi = Prophet: Who is a messenger, Who does not have an independent Book. A very good example of that are the Prophets of Israel like Isaiah, Jeremiah, Daniel, etc..... They all promulgated the Mosaic Law, without adding any new laws, or abrogating the past laws. 2- Rasool = Apostle: Who is a messenger, who has a Book, thus, He can abrogate the previous laws, but, He comes only to bring the Laws of God for His own tribe or nation. Like Hud and Salih. 3- Peighambar-e-OllolAzm = A universal Apostle, or a major Manifestation of God: Who is a messenger, Who has a Book, (i.e. thus can abrogate the laws of past religions) and His message is not specific to one tribe or one nation, but the whole world. Examples of this, according to the Muslim Scripture are: Jesus, Moses, and Muhammad. Unquestionably, both Shi'ahs and Sunnis believe that Muhammad, Peace be upon Him, was a messenger of the third category. That is to say, He had a Book, and His revelation was not specific to the people of Arabia, as we can clearly see. The question which one might ask is then: Why is His Holiness Muhammad referred to in the Qur'an as the Seal of the Nabieen (prophets), and not the Seal of the OllolAzm Messengers (UNIVERSAL Messengers of God with independent Books)? Clearly, He was more than a Nabi. In fact, He was more than a Rasool too, (since He did not come just for the Arab nation), so, what is the reason behind this specific but peculiar form of reference to a Peighambar-e-OllolAzm? Are there other ways one can understand the term Khatam'u-Nabieen, which does not implicate Muhammad to have been a Nabi? Let us examine the term "Khatam'u-Nabieen" and see what are the possible meanings one can associate with it, moreover, what are the implications of using each meaning. The term "Nabi", means Prophet, as discussed above. So "Nabieen", which is the plural form of "Nabi" means Prophets. But, depending on how the opening term is read "KhatEm" or "KhatAm", the literal meaning of the word can change. The former, "Khatem" means: "One who ends.", while the term "Khatam" means "Ornament". The term "Khatam" is also a name for a ring of seal, which was in use by the Arabs, during Muhammad's lifetime. Many people had in the past, such a ring on their finger, by which they sealed a letter. Therefore, the term Khatam'u-Nabieen, could mean: the Ornament of Prophets, or the Ornament among Prophets; the Seal of the Prophets. And the term Khatem'u-Nabieen means: One who ends Prophets, one who ends Prophethood. How this term has been used and must be used, according to Muslim theologians, will be the subject of the next reply. Part II of VI Regards, Kamran Hakim hakim@bigq.dec.com Tel#508-568-6925