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From: c60c-2ca@WEB.berkeley.edu (Andrew Choi)
Newsgroups: comp.lang.prolog
Subject: Does It Unify?
Message-ID: <1990May7.132305.15989@agate.berkeley.edu>
Date: 7 May 90 13:23:05 GMT
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Reply-To: c60c-2ca@WEB.berkeley.edu (Andrew Choi)
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Hi Gurus.  I have a simple question about unification...
Assume I have the following predicate defined:

equal(X, X).

Does the following unify?

?-  equal(foo(Y), Y).


On my Prolog interpreter, it unifies but gives very strange
instantiation for Y.  What should the "correct" answer be?

Thanks a lot.


Andrew Choi
Internet Address:  c60c-2ca@web.berkeley.edu
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