Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!mailrus!cs.utexas.edu!usc!rutgers!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: max_jedroom@oxy.edu (Jedidiah Jon Palosaari) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: Mary (immaculate conception) Message-ID: Date: 7 Jun 90 04:49:48 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: Occidental College, Los Angeles, CA 90041 Lines: 41 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu Question about Immaculate Conception, which I don't think have been mentioned to date: Has to do with the book of Mark. In Mark 3 (NIV), it says that Jesus entered a house and "When His family heard about this, they went to take charge of Him, for they said, "He is out of His mind." (The *old* Revised says his family wished to sieze Him.) Jesus' family thought He was crazy. Then right afterward, the teachers of the law accuse Christ of being posessed of a demon, and Jesus mentions the "unforgivable sin", that blasphemy against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven. Christ rebukes the teachers for claiming that He was posessed of satan, and it seems like the accusation that Jesus was crazy falls into the same lines. I mean, Mark wrote these things together for a purpose- it seems like there could be easily a connection between accusing Christ of insanity and demon-posession. Even without this connection, it seems wrong to accuse Christ of not being all there mentally, and wrong to wish to stop His ministry. So it seems that here Christ's family sins against Him. But it could be argued that Mary is not with the family at that time, so she therefore does not sin, and is still "immaculate". But then right afterward, with no break in action (only in speaking) Mark tells us that "Jesus' mother and brothers arrived." It's as if Mary, Jesus' mother, is there as well, ready to "sieze" Jesus and accuse Him of insanity as well, thereby sinning! Now this is confusing to me, because I can't understand how this links up with immaculate conception. The Catholic father here wasn't able to help- does anyone have any ideas? -Jedidiah [This question seems to assume that the immaculate conception implies that Mary is unable to make mistakes in matters of faith and morals. I frankly don't know whether that's what is intended or not. Sounds like a good question for one of our Catholic experts. --clh]