Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!sdd.hp.com!usc!rutgers!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: tp0x+@andrew.cmu.edu (Thomas Carl Price) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: Jesus as a human Message-ID: Date: 5 Aug 90 21:45:44 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Lines: 14 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu It is claimed that 1 Tim 2:5 refers to Jesus as God-Man. Presumably other verses are interpreted as referring to Jesus as Man-God. Could somebody give me a clear scriptural basis for this notion of a schizophrenic Jesus? I mean no mockery in my word-choice. TP [We've had discussions of the Trinity recently enough that it may not make sense to begin a tutorial here. I'm going to send him privately copies of some postings about it that have appeared in the past, since this response suggests that TP probably could use some background on what is meant by the term "God-Man" as commonly used in theological discussions. However if there's general interest in revisiting the topic, we can certainly do so. --clh]