Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!sdd.hp.com!usc!apple!sun-barr!rutgers!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: srchtec!johnb@gatech.edu (John Baldwin) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: Original Sin Message-ID: Date: 30 Aug 90 04:32:24 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: search technology, inc. Lines: 20 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu In article tom@dvnspc1.dev.unisys.com (Tom Albrecht) writes: > >Definition of original sin: all men are born spiritually dead, and >lack any original righteousness....[and so on]... Question: why do we refer to the Fall of Adam as "original sin?" If we're being super-accurate, wasn't the pride of Lucifer the "original" (as in "first")? [This is not a rhetorical question; I really want to know.] BTW, while I have the net-bandwidth-floor, I thought the explanation of the difference between total depravity and utter depravity was *excellent.* ^^^^^ ^^^^^ It seems to me that many people mistake one for the other... -- John T. Baldwin | johnb%srchtec.uucp@mathcs.emory.edu Search Technology, Inc. | | "... I had an infinite loop, My opinions; not my employers'. | but it was only for a little while..."