Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!sdd.hp.com!usc!snorkelwacker!bu.edu!purdue!spaf From: spaf@cs.purdue.EDU (Gene Spafford) Newsgroups: comp.org.eff.talk Subject: Re: Musing on Constitutionality Message-ID: <11608@medusa.cs.purdue.edu> Date: 6 Sep 90 17:33:42 GMT References: <11503@medusa.cs.purdue.edu> <82778@aerospace.AERO.ORG> <11521@medusa.cs.purdue.edu> <1990Sep3.182712.2260@world.std.com> <11548@medusa.cs.purdue.edu> <12945@paperboy.OSF.ORG> Sender: news@cs.purdue.EDU Reply-To: spaf@cs.purdue.edu (Gene Spafford) Organization: Department of Computer Science, Purdue University Lines: 62 In article <12945@paperboy.OSF.ORG> mbrown@tonic.osf.org (Mark Brown) writes: >In article <11548@medusa.cs.purdue.edu> spaf@cs.purdue.edu (Gene Spafford) writes: >>The original point I was trying to make is that there is a significant >>difference between a regularly-scheduled publication with identifiable >>staff and open subscriptions, and someone xeroxing off a letter in >>their basement that they mail off to a circle of friends. Whether or > >WHAT!?!?!?! >Even if I run off a 'braodsheet', and pass it out for free in the street, I'm >*still* protected by the First! > >Please, Gene, tell me you didn't *really* believe this! What does it mean to be "protected by the First"? If the sheet you have run off in your basement slanders several private citizens, and if it contains people's MasterCard numbers with instructions on how to use those numbers to commit fraud, you are definitely not "protected." Neither is the publisher or editor of a regular newspaper who publishes the same thing. The first amendment prohibits Congress from passing any law that abridges the freedom of the press. That means, at least, there can be no prior restraint. It also does NOT mean that the "press" has any immunity from the law. It furthermore does not define "the press." I still contend that there is a significant difference between an established newspaper and something run off in one's basement. I have asked if there are any lawyers out there who *know* if that difference has ever been the subject of a court case or law, or if there is a formal legal definition of what "the press" is. Note that I have nowhere stated whether I believe there *should* be a difference in the law. I do believe that members of the press should not be immune for their actions. This thread of discussion started when I pointed out that comparing the New York Times to Phrack for purposes of argument is probably specious. I asked for someone with proper background to post a definitive reply so that people have some facts to talk to. Unfortunately, the only replies are from people who don't have the information, and/or who choose to insult me for suggesting that the current situation doesn't match their world-view. I have a second question for any legal historian types out there. A comparison has been made here between the Phrack case and the Pentagon Papers. The theme has been that law enforcement didn't try to confiscate the printing presses of the newspaper. Yes, but the question I have is, did they obtain a search warrant and confiscate any of the newspaper's files? The confiscations & searches done recently on computer systems seems to have been done because they have attached storage, not because they are used as publishing tools. If that is the case, the comparison obviously falls to pieces. I'm not going to pursue this point further unless someone with appropriate research and facts cares to fill in the background for the rest of us. -- Gene Spafford NSF/Purdue/U of Florida Software Engineering Research Center, Dept. of Computer Sciences, Purdue University, W. Lafayette IN 47907-2004 Internet: spaf@cs.purdue.edu uucp: ...!{decwrl,gatech,ucbvax}!purdue!spaf