Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!usc!ucla-cs!mnemonic@walt.cc.utexas.edu
From: mnemonic@walt.cc.utexas.edu (Mike Godwin)
Newsgroups: sci.med.aids
Subject: Re: (2524) Re: I CONFESS MY IGNORANCE...
Message-ID: <39459@shemp.CS.UCLA.EDU>
Date: 27 Sep 90 17:44:33 GMT
References: <39348@shemp.CS.UCLA.EDU> <39396@shemp.CS.UCLA.EDU>
Sender: news@CS.UCLA.EDU
Reply-To: mnemonic@walt.cc.utexas.edu (Mike Godwin)
Organization: The University of Texas at Austin, Austin, Texas
Lines: 26
Approved: phil@wubios.wustl.edu
Note:	Copyright 1990 by Daniel R. Greening.  Permission granted for
Note:	non-commercial reproduction.
Archive-number: 2552

In article <39396@shemp.CS.UCLA.EDU> phil@wubios.wustl.edu (J. Philip Miller) writes:
>
>IF THERE IS NO BARRIER, YOU ARE AT
>SIGNIFICANT RISK IF THE PARTNER IS HIV POSITIVE.
>
>This is true whether the sex is oral, anal or vaginal.

Far be it from me to question a professor of biostatistics, but ...
as an assiduous reader of statistics myself, I see no data that
give rise to the inference that a male is at "SIGNIFICANT RISK"
of acquiring HIV from oral or vaginal sex with an HIV+ female.

In general, it seems, female-to-male transmission is relatively
difficult. Moreover, I've seen little documentation that oral
sex among males is a significant (or SIGNIFICANT) mode of
transmission.

If there is statistical data out there addressing these points,
I'd be happy to see the references.

--Mike

Mike Godwin, UT Law School  |"If the doors of perception were cleansed
mnemonic@ccwf.cc.utexas.edu | every thing would appear to man as it is,
(512) 346-4190              | infinite."
                            |                 --Blake