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From: IABF%SNYCENVM.BITNET@oac.ucla.edu (Amy Francis)
Newsgroups: sci.med.aids
Subject: Re: (2569) [SMA 2552] Re: (2524) Re: I CONFESS MY IGNORANCE...
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Date: 3 Oct 90 13:50:50 GMT
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Approved: ddodell@stjhmc.fidonet.org (David Dodell)
Note:	Copyright 1990 by Daniel R. Greening.  Permission granted for
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Archive-number: 2577

Wouldn't the risk of a male catching HIV from a female (assuming neither
have sores or anything) be just the same as that male catching say,
syphillis, from the female (isn't that a fluid to fluid or blood to blood
exchange?)

prelude: I know that the eye and the fluid therein is one of the most
         direct pathways to the blood stream.

Question: If, during the course of conversation, someone who is HIV+
          ejects some saliva from their mouth and it happens to land
          in another's eye, should that person be tested?  I know that
          there was a theory at one point that there is an enzyme in
          saliva that inhibits HIV.  What do you think about this?
          Should the person be tested? Is that paranoia?  Is there any
          recent data on saliva containing active HIV? etc...