Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!swrinde!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!usc!jarthur!elroy.jpl.nasa.gov!ucla-cs!ST602662%BROWNVM.BITNET@oac.ucla.edu From: ST602662%BROWNVM.BITNET@oac.ucla.edu (Bill Jesdale) Newsgroups: sci.med.aids Subject: Re: (2630) Re: (2624) Not a high risk group? Message-ID: <40265@shemp.CS.UCLA.EDU> Date: 17 Oct 90 17:40:30 GMT Sender: news@CS.UCLA.EDU Lines: 23 Approved: phil@wubios.wustl.edu Note: Copyright 1990 by Daniel R. Greening. Permission granted for Note: non-commercial reproduction. Archive-number: 2653 Whether or not a person feels that the CDC definition of it's homosexual/bisexual male risk categoryis reasonably accurate, I think one must have one's head stuck deeply in the sand if one is to argue that men who have lots of sex with men are, on the whole, not at much higher risk of acquiring HIV infectionthan men who do not have sex with lots of men. Also, if one is to use the extremely loose definition of 'gay' which includes 70% of men (This figure, I assume, would include all guys who fiddled around in adolescence, and probably many who didn't even do this much), then this would account for 35% of the population, not 70%. Therefore, even given the reckoning of the previous poster, 'gay' men would be overrepresented by a factor of two. When one considers that the majority of heterosexual adults and presumably asexual infants and children did not get infected through sex, doing this kind of analysis on the data becomes even more ludicrous. Gay men have been hard hit by this disease. Let's not deny it. Be Well, Bill Jesdale