Path: utzoo!attcan!uunet!ora!daemon From: morphy@truebalt.cco.caltech.edu (Jones Maxime Murphy) Newsgroups: soc.feminism Subject: Re: Newspaper Article Message-ID: <1990Oct18.004827.28221@nntp-server.caltech.edu> Date: 18 Oct 90 00:48:27 GMT References: <4836@sarah> <1990Oct12.214229.23575@nntp-server.caltech.edu> <60497.271b504a@vaxc.cc.monash.edu.au> <26502@megaron.cs.arizona.edu> Sender: ambar@ora.com (Jean Marie Diaz) Organization: California Institute of Technology, Pasadena Lines: 30 Approved: ambar@ora.com bweiss@cs.arizona.EDU (Beth Weiss) writes: >Is it true that god prefers to talk to men, or is it true that only >men were listened to at that time, and so times god talked to women >weren't recorded? Certainly, Christ is male. All the _published_ >prophets are male. But I don't think that means women are purely >auxiliary. If you really *want* to believe in God, I suppose you can construct various hypotheses that preserve a non-sexist god. Why, though? Besides, by doing so, you're leaving canonical Judaeo-Christian-Islam, which is the subject of this thread. No, women aren't auxiliary except in the scriptures. >If you view the Bible as the true word of god, then certainly you >have to assume that god talks primarily to men. However, a theist who >views the Bible as a collection of people's views of the word of god >might well wonder if the literate men may have modified any section >that referred to (or should have referred to) women. Like I said, by doing so we would stray from the original thread. Why bend over backwards to preserve the non-sexist god, though. What does feminism gain from this exercise? Not a whole lot, as far as I can tell. Comments? Jones Physics Dept. Caltech