Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!swrinde!elroy.jpl.nasa.gov!usc!snorkelwacker.mit.edu!bloom-beacon!eru!hagbard!sunic!sics.se!sics.se!torkel From: torkel@sics.se (Torkel Franzen) Newsgroups: comp.ai.philosophy Subject: Re: Intuition and doubt (was Re: Minds, machines, and Godel) Message-ID: <1991Jan23.180914.8116@sics.se> Date: 23 Jan 91 18:09:14 GMT References: <7129.9101231301@s4.sys.uea.ac.uk> Sender: news@sics.se Organization: Swedish Institute of Computer Science, Kista Lines: 20 In-Reply-To: jrk@information-systems.east-anglia.ac.uk's message of 23 Jan 91 13:01:37 GMT In article <7129.9101231301@s4.sys.uea.ac.uk> jrk@information-systems.east- anglia.ac.uk (Richard Kennaway CMP RA) writes: >But I am raising a comparable hullabaloo - that is to say, hardly any at >all. I just use mathematics, I don't concern myself with whether it's true. >"Truth" in mathematics is not a metaphysical or deplorable concept, just an >unnecessary one. This doesn't even begin to touch on the question I raised. You were saying, of a particular theorem of elementary analysis of the form "every natural number has property P", with P a primitive recursive predicate, that we have no reason whatever to believe that every natural number has property P, except that no counterexample has been found. So my question is, would you extend this to every theorem of analysis? If it were proved in elementary analysis that the equation x^n+y^n=z^n has no non-trivial solution for n>2, would you proclaim to the net that we still have no reason whatever to believe that this is so, except that no counterexample has been found? I rather suspect not. And as long as you prefer to ignore this issue, you have said nothing of consequence regarding consistency.