Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!bonnie.concordia.ca!thunder.mcrcim.mcgill.edu!snorkelwacker.mit.edu!usc!cs.utexas.edu!sun-barr!newstop!sun!amdcad!brahms!jmw From: jmw@brahms.amd.com (Mike Wincn) Newsgroups: sci.bio Subject: Re: Evolution & female orgasm Message-ID: <1991Jan23.232018.25393@amd.com> Date: 23 Jan 91 23:20:18 GMT References: <1178@ai.cs.utexas.edu> Sender: usenet@amd.com (NNTP Posting) Organization: Advanced Micro Devices; Sunnyvale, CA Lines: 44 In article <1178@ai.cs.utexas.edu> throop@cs.utexas.edu (David Throop) writes: [...] > Most women do not come to orgasm from intercourse alone. For most >women, intercourse must either be preceeded by or augmented by other >clitoral stimulation. Has it always been this way? How do you know this? What constitutes "most" in your claim? > I think of cunnilingus and manual stimulation of one's partner as >civilized acts. I find it hard to believe that stone age people >practiced them -- at least, I've heard no reports of these practices >among chimpanzees. What makes you think that sexual practices of chimpanzees has anything to do with the sexual practices of humans? (And, just in case you're thinking of it, I'm not a whit interested in hearing about bestiality.) [...] > But it seems really odd to think that women would have evolved a >physiological capacity for orgasm, but have evolved it in such a way >that it couldn't be triggered (except rarely) by practices that didn't >arise until the advent of civilization. Only "odd" if your premises are to be believed, which, thus far, have not been supported whatsoever. Further, you haven't presented a bit of evidence to suggest that current sexual practices _haven't_ been in vogue since pre-history. The little bit I know of ancient artifacts suggests that they _have_. > Could most prehistoric women come to orgasm from penetration alone? Who knows? Why would it matter? >If so, why can so few modern women? If not, did prehistoric people >augment penetration in a manner similar to our modern practices? And if >prehistoric women mostly didn't have orgasm when mating, why did the >capacity for female orgasm evolve? This is a very silly line of reasoning. There isn't any way of knowing answers to this, and your premises are full of holes. You're at U Texas? I suggest a refresher course or two in logic and deductive reasoning. -- Mike Wincn jmw@brahms.AMD.COM (408) 749-3156 DISCLAIMER: I speak for myself unless noted otherwise.