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From: HBO043%DJUKFA11.BITNET@cunyvm.cuny.edu (Christoph van Wuellen)
Newsgroups: comp.os.minix
Subject: C SYNTAX QUESTION
Message-ID: <43415@nigel.ee.udel.edu>
Date: 1 Feb 91 08:55:30 GMT
Sender: usenet@ee.udel.edu
Lines: 25

Is this correct, and if so, why?

test()
{
int i;
void void_function();

...

i ?  void_function() : 0;
}

In GNU GAS, file obstack.h, many macros of such type are declared, and
my c68/c386 compiler complains about that..

Of course,

i ? void_function() : (void) 0;

works. c68 knows that 0 is a legal pointer of any type in the Syntax, but
what about void?
Since c68 claims to be K&R, and my copy of K&R does not mention void,
I would appreciate a syntax rule. The implementation into the compiler
is not that problem, but what is the exact rule?
C.v.W.