Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!wuarchive!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!pacific.mps.ohio-state.edu!linac!att!cbnews!junk1 From: junk1@cbnews.att.com (eric.a.olson) Newsgroups: comp.lang.c Subject: Re: Frequently Asked Array Questions Message-ID: <1991Mar30.060146.10515@cbnews.att.com> Date: 30 Mar 91 06:01:46 GMT References: <1991Mar15.045933.25690@athena.mit.edu> Organization: AT&T Bell Laboratories Lines: 57 >Section 2. Arrays and Pointers > >20. So what is meant by the "equivalence of pointers and arrays" in C? > >A: An identifier of type array-of-T which appears in an expression > decays into a pointer to its first element; the type of the > resultant pointer is pointer-to-T. Exactly what kind of expression? Not, for instance, one where an lvalue is expected... now: I have been writing in C since '82 and thought that I had it down. Read K&R and K&R 2 religiously. Became the person that others came to with C questions. Followed Chris et al here as well. Today, I ran across a situation where a peer had: func() { char array[7]; if (array == 0) something; } His code wasn't working. I looked thru the rest of the code and suggested that he wanted 'array[0] == 0' rather than 'array == 0', and I furthermore charged that the compiler had warned him about this, and that he had ignored it. Well, it just ain't so. No compiler we have complains about it. They complain about a test for equality with any other constant but 0, but even then, only that it is an illegal pointer/integer combination. (I understand that difference). It seems to me that a comparison between something of type auto array and something of type constant ought to at least produce a warning. It's not like we're supposing even that it might be an extern and that the linker bound it to 0. I posed this to john ampe here at BL and he finally came up with this argument: the following is clearly legal: { char x[7]; char *p; for (p=x+3; p != x; --p) something; } therefore, testing an auto array name for equality to a constant is legal as well, since if you reduce the types you have the same types in both cases. After looking at this, and the above excerpt from the FAQ, I had to concede that such a test was valid. However, I still feel a little strange about it. Can anyone here give another reason why this test is legal, or expound upon john's example? Feel free to reply directly to: eao@mvucl.att.com