Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!rpi!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!rphroy!caen!sdd.hp.com!mips!dimacs.rutgers.edu!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: tblake@bingvaxu.cc.binghamton.edu (Thomas Blake) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: "Laws that are not Good" (Ezekiel 20) Message-ID: Date: 10 May 91 06:59:30 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: State University of New York at Binghamton Lines: 25 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu [Thomas Blake reads Lk 16:16-18 as implying a distinction between the laws of Moses and God. > 16 "The Law of Moses and the writings of the prophets were in effect >up to the time of John the Baptist; since then the Good News about the >Kingdom of God is being told, and everyone forces his way in. 17 But it >is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the smallest detail >of the Law to be done away with. He reads 16 as saying the the law of Moses is not in effect, but the Law of God still is. I commented that this is an "unusual" interpretation of this passage. --clh] Boy, I'll say it's unusual! But let's look at it the other way. First Jesus says that the law was in effect until John, then after John everybody's getting in. Then Jesus says it's incredibly hard to change the law, and then he goes ahead and changes it! (But since it apparantly isn't in effect anymore what's the point in changing it?) These three verses seem to me to represent in microcosm the seeming underlying contradiction in Jesus' teachings on the law. I'm not trying to present my interpretation (now almost a day old) as the only valid interpretation, I am trying (as with my original Ezekiel post), to stimulate conversation on this matter. Tom Blake SUNY-Binghamton