Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!cs.utexas.edu!wuarchive!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!mips!dimacs.rutgers.edu!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: math1h3@jetson.uh.edu Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: "Laws that are not Good" (Ezekiel 20) Message-ID: Date: 11 May 91 03:15:23 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: University of Houston Lines: 113 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu In article , tblake@bingvaxu.cc.binghamton.edu (Thomas Blake) writes: > > Indeed, in the Gospels, Jesus' reaction to the Pharisees' question about > the laws governing divorce makes it appear that this is Moses' law, and > not the Law of God. That is an interesting point that I will have to think about. > Matthew 19:7,8 See also Mark 10:4,5 > 7 The Pharisees asked him, "Why then, did Moses give the law for a man > to hand his wive a divorce notice and send her away?" > 8 Jesus answered, "Moses gave you permission to divorce your wives > because you are so hard to teach... (TEV) > > For those who are interested, check out Deuteronomy 24:1-4 "If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something *indecent* about her..." A footnote in the Concordia Self-Study Bible regarding Matthew 19:3 notes that there was "a dispute between the schools of Shammai and Hillel over the interpretation of Dt 24:1-4. Shammai held that "something indecent" meant 'marital unfaithfulness' --the only allowable cause for divorce. Hillel (c. 60 B.C. - A.D. 20) emphasized the preceding clause, "who becomes displeasing to him." He would allow a man to divorce his wife if she did anything he disliked--even if she burned his food while cooking it. Jesus clearly took the side of Shammai (see v. 9) but only after first pointing back to God's original ideal for marriage in Gen 1:27; 2:24." > It appears to me that Jesus makes a distinction between the laws of > Moses and the laws of God. (A distinction we as modern day Christians > often fail to make.) > > Interestingly enough, also check out Luke 16:16-18 > 16 "The Law of Moses and the writings of the prophets were in effect > up to the time of John the Baptist; since then the Good News about the > Kingdom of God is being told, and everyone forces his way in. 17 But it > is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the smallest detail > of the Law to be done away with. > 18 "Any man who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits > adultery; and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. > > Correct my interpretation if you will. Verse 16 implies that since > the coming of John the Baptist announcing the new age The Law of Moses, > and the teachings of the prophets are no longer in effect. Verse 17 > implies that the Law of God *unlike* the Law of Moses is not so easily > done away with. Verse 18 stresses the distinction between the law of > Moses and the Law of God. NIV: " 16)The Law and the Prophets were proclaimied until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it." Jesus does not make a distinction between God's Law and Moses. He is making a distinction between the Old Covenant and the New. See Matthew 5: 17-20. Jesus discusses the same thing with a little more context. " 17) Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18) I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. 19) Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20) For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven." Comments: 1. Jesus fulfilled the Law and the Prophets by living a life of perfect obedience, and by fulfilling the prophecies made concerning his death and resurrection, his atonement for the sins of the people. 2. We might say that 'everything was accomplished' when Jesus spoke the words 'It is finished' on the cross. Matthew wrote that at the moment Jesus gave up his spirit, 'the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom.' This signified the end of the Old covenant; its purpose was fulfilled, and it was no longer needed. 3. On the other hand, since Jesus referred to 'until heaven and earth disappear,' it may be that he means that the Law will stand until Judgement day: "Then I saw a great white throne and him who was seated on it. Earth and sky fled from his presence, and there was no place for them. And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books. The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what he had done. Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death. If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire." --Rev. 20:11-15 From this I conclude that the Law still stands for use in judging those whose names are not written in the book of life through faith in Jesus. Further comment on Matthew 5: 4. How does our righteousness exceed 'that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the Law?' Our righteousness comes from God (Romans 3:21) It is Christ's perfect righteousness, imputed to us by God's grace through faith. David H. Wagner a confessional Lutheran My opinions and beliefs on this matter are disclaimed by The University of Houston.