Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!rpi!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!wuarchive!psuvax1!rutgers!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: jclark@sdcc6.ucsd.edu (John Clark) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: I AM DISGUSTED! Message-ID: Date: 14 May 91 07:27:25 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: University of California, San Diego Lines: 25 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu In article oracle@eleazar.dartmouth.edu (Brian T. Coughlin) writes: + Hi, Tom! + + From the perspective of the Catholic Church (i.e. the only one that + I'm really familiar with), Jesus was not "in favor" of homosexuality. + This view is not based on direct quotation because, as you've mentioned, + there AREN'T any Gospel passages referring to homosexuality. Rather, + it is noted that Jesus supports the Old Testament idea of monogamous, + heterosexual, marital intercourse being the only good sexual acts. For Jews, 'monogamy' became the exclusive marriage arrangment only after the Diaspora. Even Josephus (ca. 70-80 AD) had to explain his two wives and Herod's several to the Roman's as "as is our(Jewish) custom". The 'ten' commandment only say 'no adultery and no coveting' relative to other men's wives. It does not give a 'head' count. It is the Roman custom to have only one wife which became our antecedent for the practice. This combined with a number of 'it's better not to marry at all' statements in the N.T. give the proscription against one man several wives. -- John Clark jclark@ucsd.edu