Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!rpi!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!mips!dimacs.rutgers.edu!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: dewhitr@mist.cs.orst.edu (deWhitt Robin James) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: Could Jesus have sinned? Message-ID: Date: 3 Jun 91 06:34:34 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: Computer Science Department, Oregon State Univ. Lines: 48 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu In article jclark@sdcc6.ucsd.edu (John Clark) writes: >In article st0o+@andrew.cmu.edu (Steven Timm) writes: >+ >+1) If Jesus were unable to sin, He would be the only human for whom this >+was impossible. Even Adam and Eve, created sinless at the beginning, > >There are 'related' questions such as 'If God is omnipotent then can >He create a stone so large He can't move?'. One answer is "Yes, but >chooses not to". I don't find that answer satisfying. > >In the case of Jesus then, if he is God then can God sin in the >sense becoming separated from God? Hence the 'need' for the concept >of a two-god-in-one, or a three-god-in-one with the Holy Spirit. The >idea of monotheism forces the one-god, the three different entities >require the triad. >-- Re: "Separation" of the 3 entities (for lack of a better term) of the Trinity, and the question of whether or not Christ could have sinned (and consequently become "separated from God:") why, on the cross, did Christ say "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?" - which means "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 26:46.) Also, explain why Christ prays, "My Father, if it is possible, may this cup be taken from me. Yet not as I will, but as you will." (Matthew 26:39 and 26:42.) I am quite annoyed with the fact that the many of the people who have debated this issue have been pontificting from their own non-scriptural philosophies, not once looking into scripture for the answer. Check out 2 Corinthians 5:21, "God made him who had no sin to be sin for us," Hebrews 2:14 "Since the children have flesh and blood, he (Christ) too shared in their humanity," 4:15 "...but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are, but was without sin," 2:18, "Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted," Romans 8:3 "...God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful man...," and, the grandest mystery of all, John 1:14 "the Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us." Clearly, for the sacrifice to be meaningful, Jesus was fully human. The gift is in his sacrifice, meaningful because he did not fall to temptation. His "ability" to sin lies in his humanity, as he was fully human, as seen in Heb. 2:14. Jesus is called "man" in I Timothy 2:5. All other metaphysical questions are irrelevant, and arguments over it are useless (Titus 3:9.) Jesus, the Son of God, became man, resisting all temptation, and became a pure and blameless sacrifice for our own iniquities. Pray for wisdom and understanding, and rely not own your own strength of discernment, but rather that of the Spirit. Ryan Hare (using dewhitr@mist.cs.orst.edu)