Path: utzoo!utgpu!news-server.csri.toronto.edu!rpi!think.com!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!mips!dimacs.rutgers.edu!aramis.rutgers.edu!athos.rutgers.edu!christian From: jclark@sdcc6.ucsd.edu (John Clark) Newsgroups: soc.religion.christian Subject: Re: PCUSA report on human sexuality Message-ID: Date: 4 Jun 91 04:02:45 GMT Sender: hedrick@athos.rutgers.edu Organization: University of California, San Diego Lines: 29 Approved: christian@aramis.rutgers.edu In article chappell@symcom.math.uiuc.edu (Glenn Chappell) writes: +definition of "Christian". It is interesting to note, however, that divorce +is apparently nearly unknown among Christians who read the Bible daily. Excuse me for not giving more information on my experience. My wife reads the Bible once every 10 years for her health. I read the Bible when I make some outrageous statement and either prove myself wrong or prove I have recalled correctly. Her sisters at the time were married to individuals who were in the practice of daily reading from the Bible. Now, I cannot with absolute verification state that they both, together, daily read the Bible. But say for the sake of arguement they did. This would give you a 'hearing of' for which you have not found else where. On the other hand, what if, for one of the sisters, the sister did not 'read the Bible' daily with her husband. Does that necessarily imply that the husband was correct in proceding the divorce. Or to put it another way, there is a phrase which is to the effect of "not being un-equally yoked" as in don't be married to a non-believer. Does this provide a basis for a Christian to divorce a spouse? And how much Bible thumbing must one do to 'prove' that one believes if one is accused of not believing? -- John Clark jclark@ucsd.edu