Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!decvax!harpo!gummo!whuxlb!pyuxll!eisx!npoiv!npois!hogpc!houti!trc From: trc@houti.UUCP (T.CRAVER) Newsgroups: net.philosophy Subject: mixing and holding values Message-ID: <407@houti.UUCP> Date: Wed, 24-Aug-83 12:42:33 EDT Article-I.D.: houti.407 Posted: Wed Aug 24 12:42:33 1983 Date-Received: Wed, 24-Aug-83 19:55:50 EDT Lines: 44 Response to Paul Torek: Altruism is a moral system that holds the ideal principle for human action to be exclusively the benefit of others, with no mixing of concern for self. On the "spectrum of moral systems of concerned purposes for action", this lies at one end, and selfishness at the other. The intermediate systems *can* be said to be a mix of the *principles* of altruism and selfishness. On what *basis* can we declare any intermediate "mixed principles" systems to be better than the good principle of the two that make it up? Note that I am not yet attacking the idea that there can be such a basis - I am merely pointing out that you need to provide that basis. In light of the fact that I believe selfishness to be a valid purpose, I will not demand that you make that side of the argument. Rather, I am asking you to supply some justification for the principle of benefit to others being a valid purpose (whether *equally* valid, or not). Note that I am asking for a *purpose*, not a cause, motivation, etc. And even if one doesnt assign good or bad, the contradictions between the two principles that arise in intermediate systems have to be resolved somehow. How? I claim that actual purposes can only be based upon *actual values* to ones' self. Note that I am not saying one cannot "value someone else benefitting", but rather one cannot "hold someone else's value". The former can be done by valuing one's pleasure at a loved one's benefiting, for example. The latter simply means that you do not experience the other's benefits, and so cannot *directly* value them, only indirectly, through one's own benefit that arises because of their benefit. Have I made the distinction clear yet? This is important, because it is a distinction I think you have not noticed me making. As to proof by definition - I do not claim to prove humans have rationality. I claim that that is obvious. I claim that I define, on the basis fo that reality, the term "human" to include "rationality". I have sent a note already showing that "jerks" may be a valid definition, but it requires the more fundamental definition "human". I agree that applying labels does not tell one what to do - but that was not what the discussion was about. The discussion was about whether it is valid to define "human" to include "rationality". Once we have accepted that defintion, we can use it to say "we are able to be rational, and rationality is good becaues it works in reality for our survival, so we should be rational". Tom Craver houti!trc