Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!decvax!harpo!eagle!mhuxi!houxm!ihnp4!ixn5c!inuxc!pur-ee!ecn-ec:ecn-pc:ecn-ed:vu From: ecn-ec:ecn-pc:ecn-ed:vu@pur-ee.UUCP Newsgroups: net.math Subject: Re: A new paradox? Message-ID: <204@ecn-ed.UUCP> Date: Thu, 15-Sep-83 16:52:28 EDT Article-I.D.: ecn-ed.204 Posted: Thu Sep 15 16:52:28 1983 Date-Received: Sat, 17-Sep-83 05:46:54 EDT References: 5941ux.406 Lines: 17 (And yet another dummy) That "paradox" is rather old and well-known. The fallacy lies in the fact that induction does not apply to all sets. Take your set of n-1 elements. Which one is x(1) ? How did you pick it ? You say "pick any of them" ? No: the choice must be objective (Try to program a computer to pick an number, any number, from a set of data !! If you use random number, the computer is not picking A number, it is picking THE number that conforms somehow to the random number it generated). In fact, principle of inductions applies for a set N if and only if N has a smallest element, whereas "smallest" doesn't necessarily means numerically smallest. If you can somehow OBJECTIVELY define an order in your set of n-1 element, then induction will apply. But you can't. So induction doesn't apply. Hao-Nhien Vu (pur-ee!norris)