Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site watmath.UUCP Path: utzoo!watmath!ljdickey From: ljdickey@watmath.UUCP (Lee Dickey) Newsgroups: net.math Subject: Re: Dumb Question Message-ID: <7422@watmath.UUCP> Date: Sat, 31-Mar-84 11:06:26 EST Article-I.D.: watmath.7422 Posted: Sat Mar 31 11:06:26 1984 Date-Received: Sun, 1-Apr-84 07:03:54 EST References: <1198@ucf-cs.UUCP> Organization: U of Waterloo, Ontario Lines: 29 > For complex numbers a, b, and c; is (a ^ b ^ c) equal to: > (1): a ^ (b ^ c) > (2): (a ^ b) ^ c, or > (3): a ^ (b * c) Your question is not dumb, it is a perfectly natural one. To give an explanation, I would like to talk about "+", another dyadic function. It is a well known property of integers, rationals, reals, complexes (and other things, for that matter) that (a+b)+c = a+(b+c) That is why the expression "a+b+c" makes any sense at all, because addition is *defined* for only two numbers at a time, not for three or more. Now, what about exponentiation? It, like addition, is defined for only two numbers at a time. Now, does the expression "a^b^c" make sense? Most professional mathematicians are a bit twitchie about it, simply because of the observation that you made that gave rise to the question, namely that expressions (1) and (2) are not equivalent. I guess I am saying that there is no consensus, and that the pros try to be un-ambiguous about it by putting in the parentheses. -- Lee Dickey, University of Waterloo. (ljdickey@watmath.UUCP) ...!allegra!watmath!ljdickey ...!ucbvax!decvax!watmath!ljdickey