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From: wbp@hou2d.UUCP (W.PINEAULT)
Newsgroups: net.math
Subject: Re: Re: Yet another puzzle
Message-ID: <481@hou2d.UUCP>
Date: Thu, 6-Sep-84 17:12:16 EDT
Article-I.D.: hou2d.481
Posted: Thu Sep  6 17:12:16 1984
Date-Received: Sat, 15-Sep-84 07:36:36 EDT
Organization: AT&T Bell Labs, Holmdel NJ
Lines: 16


	My apologies about my last article on the 3n+1 problem.

	The equation to be solved is:

		2**n - 3**m = 1

	not the other way around.  Now n=1, m=0 works, as does n=2, m=1.

	The reason for this connection is found by setting k=f(f(...(k)...)
and solving for k given your favorite sequence of operations.  The
denominator of the value of k will be of the form 2**n - 3**m!

					Wayne Pineault
					AT&T Consumer Products
					Holmdel, NJ