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Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!allegra!alice!ark
From: ark@alice.UUCP (Andrew Koenig)
Newsgroups: net.politics
Subject: Re: Re: A Question for Libertarians
Message-ID: <3102@alice.UUCP>
Date: Tue, 13-Nov-84 13:55:12 EST
Article-I.D.: alice.3102
Posted: Tue Nov 13 13:55:12 1984
Date-Received: Wed, 14-Nov-84 04:54:55 EST
References: <358@klipper.UUCP>
Organization: AT&T Bell Laboratories, Murray Hill
Lines: 38

klipper!biep asks:

	Suppose I own some piece of land, and while I'm on
	it my neighbour buys all the surrounding land and tells
	me that I am not allowed to pass over it.

Ask a simple question, get a simple answer.

My parents are in exactly the situation you describe.  They own
the land on which they live, but other people own all the adjoining
land.  There is no way they can get to or from their land without
passing over someone else's property.

Therefore, when they bought the land, they also bought a "right of way"
over land belonging to one of their neighbors.  Briefly,
this is a contract that was originally made between the
people who built my parents' house and the people who then
owned some of the adjoining land.  It provided that:

	1. The builders can build and maintain a driveway
	from their land to the public road.

	2. The builders can sell the privilege of using
	this driveway when they sell the land.

	3. The neighbors can do as they please with their
	land, but they may only sell it if the buyer
	agrees to continue to allow the builders
	(and whoever they sell this privilege to)
	to use the driveway.

	4. In exchange for all this, the builders agree
	to pay the neighbors some amount of money.

Thus, my parents are guaranteed legal access to their land,
regardless of who owns the land under the driveway.

Why would anyone buy land without a guaranteed way to get to it?