Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site ucf-cs.UUCP Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!unc!mcnc!duke!ucf-cs!yiri From: yiri@ucf-cs.UUCP (Yirmiyahu BenDavid) Newsgroups: net.religion Subject: smug sophomorics Message-ID: <1641@ucf-cs.UUCP> Date: Thu, 1-Nov-84 10:48:05 EST Article-I.D.: ucf-cs.1641 Posted: Thu Nov 1 10:48:05 1984 Date-Received: Sat, 3-Nov-84 07:34:49 EST Organization: UCF, Orlando, FL Lines: 60 The following mailing from Larry Bickford is more appropriate to net.religion ------------------------------------------------------------------ Subject: Re: awesome logic... overwhelming In-Reply-To: your article <1622@ucf-cs.UUCP> Your continuing emphasis on the alleged original Hebrew of the New Testament continues to amuse me in the light of the many times where it is emphasized that Jesus, Peter, Paul, or even the Samaritan woman said something in Hebrew. Further, Luke was most definitely a *Gentile* physician of Troas. From his recordings in Acts, one can learn of the Christians meeting "on the first day of the week to break bread" and of the desire to lay no further burden that the basic four. Also, considering the many Hebrew Christians today, there is not a lack of ability to see things from a Jewish perspective. That is why I pay special attention when someone like Charles Feinberg, Marv Rosenthal, or Moishe Rosen speaks. Larry Bickford, {amd,sun,decwrl,idi,ittvax,cbosgd}!qubix!lab _________________________________________________________________ Rather than be amused, it would be advisable that you take a more scholarly and less superficial and sophomoric approach. For example, the many times that these personages were emphasized to have spoken something in Hebrew is to distinguish it from their usual speech which was in Aramaic. Luke was definitely not a gentile, he was a Hellenist Jew of the Diaspora. Your personal word doesn't change that. Try submitting some more credible basis. (Since you seem to think that your word is sufficient proof he was gentile, why shouldn't my word be sufficient contradiction of it?) There were no Christians in the 1st century, they were N'tzarim. They met on EVERY day of the week to break bread if you will read more carefully. As to their desire to lay no further burden than the basic 4, you must not have read the previous articles. If so, they passed over your head. Certainly, you have not answered them. 'Hebrew Christians' are a real deception. They are people who never had much of a grasp on Judaism and were not observant of Judaism. Rather, what you have is some who were apostates and turned from their already apostate condition to convert to Christianity without ever really being very knowledgeable in Judaism. Christian theologians might even agree that they have not obtained any scholarly and in-depth grasp of their new-found Christianity either (by scholarly I mean a Charles- worth, or recognized scholar status). So what you have are people who are relatively blind in both Judaism AND Christianity pretending to be expert in (at least) Judaism when, in fact, nothing could be further from the truth and leading those who are even more blind. I believe your Bible notes the consequence of the blind leading the blind? They certainly do NOT have the necessary Jewish perspective to pass it on to you... nor did they before their conversion.