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From: wildbill@ucbvax.ARPA (William J. Laubenheimer)
Newsgroups: net.math
Subject: Re: f(x) = (if x = p/q then 1/q else 0) integrable ??
Message-ID: <4467@ucbvax.ARPA>
Date: Wed, 30-Jan-85 01:13:54 EST
Article-I.D.: ucbvax.4467
Posted: Wed Jan 30 01:13:54 1985
Date-Received: Thu, 31-Jan-85 00:36:18 EST
References: <350@decwrl.UUCP>
Reply-To: wildbill@ucbvax.UUCP (William J. Laubenheimer)
Organization: University of California at Berkeley
Lines: 8
Summary: 

Yes, it is integrable. Any function which is constant almost everywhere
(i.e., except on a set of measure 0) is integrable. The integral over
any measurable set, such as the ones you gave, is 0. This result holds
for any function which is 0 a.e.

                                        Bill Laubenheimer
----------------------------------------UC-Berkeley Computer Science
     ...Killjoy went that-a-way--->     ucbvax!wildbill