Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.2 9/18/84; site voder.UUCP Path: utzoo!dciem!nrcaero!pesnta!hplabs!nsc!voder!gino From: gino@voder.UUCP (Gino Bloch) Newsgroups: net.nlang,net.women Subject: Re: Re: Gender-specific neuter pronouns Message-ID: <655@voder.UUCP> Date: Thu, 31-Jan-85 20:26:19 EST Article-I.D.: voder.655 Posted: Thu Jan 31 20:26:19 1985 Date-Received: Fri, 1-Feb-85 21:44:48 EST References: <437@ptsfa.UUCP> <1285@bbncca.ARPA> <2285@mit-hermes.ARPA> Organization: National Semiconductor, Santa Clara Lines: 21 > Harrumph, harrumph. Then I'd expect that 'homo' would be of neuter gender, > which Latin provides, but it's male. The "default sex" in Latin is male, just Gender in Latin is a grammatical category, not a sex. Examples are the two feminine nouns `agricola' and `nauta' - farmer and sailor; these nouns almost invariably described MEN. > But apparently contracts written in archaic French refer to "personnes", > which is of course feminine in French. And then to keep the gender straight, > so to speak, the contract refers to these persons as "elles" [they, female] > later on. How would modern French handle this? Same way; `la personne' ==> use `elle' as pronoun. Note, for instance, that in French we have `le car' and `la voiture', both meaning `automobile'. So in a sentence using `car', you'd say `il', but if you said `voiture' you'd say `elle'. Gender is much less biological in French than in English. It is not, in general, safe to use categories, feelings, and connotations belonging to one {language + culture} to reason about another. Better to get into the genius of the second one and then think about it. -- Gene E. Bloch (...!nsc!voder!gino) Support Bulgarian gajda players.