Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Path: utzoo!laura From: laura@utzoo.UUCP (Laura Creighton) Newsgroups: net.politics.theory Subject: Re: The gold standard. Message-ID: <5029@utzoo.UUCP> Date: Thu, 7-Feb-85 02:56:48 EST Article-I.D.: utzoo.5029 Posted: Thu Feb 7 02:56:48 1985 Date-Received: Thu, 7-Feb-85 02:56:48 EST References: <613@ukma.UUCP> Organization: U of Toronto Zoology Lines: 22 I have a question. Assume that we do away with the Fed, and say that it cannot muck with the money supply any more. The Fed was supposed to protect solvant banks from buckling if there was a run on banks -- now the existing agreements between the banks can do this. Assume that we are on a gold standard, and that there is a fixed ratio between the amount of paper dollars and the amount of gold. Wealth increases. The money supply doesn't. The prices of goods fall. I can now buy more stuff with the same salary I was making last year. I am happier. This is called deflation, and is supposed to be a very bad thing. At some point it may be desirable to increase the money supply (say when newspapers cost .8 cents each) but is there any good reason to tie the growth in wealth with a growth in the money supply as a matter of course? Milton Friedman seems to think so, but I have yet to read him explain why, and I would rather see the growth in wealth passed onto me than passed onto either the government or the banks through an increase in the money supply. Laura Creighton utzoo!laura