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From: jim@ISM780B.UUCP
Newsgroups: net.philosophy
Subject: Re: Re: Rosen on reason, etc.
Message-ID: <147@ISM780B.UUCP>
Date: Sat, 23-Feb-85 00:58:29 EST
Article-I.D.: ISM780B.147
Posted: Sat Feb 23 00:58:29 1985
Date-Received: Mon, 25-Feb-85 01:37:22 EST
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Nf-ID: #R:aesat:-34400:ISM780B:27500062:000:1647
Nf-From: ISM780B!jim    Feb 21 20:44:00 1985

>What is logically wrong with the assumption that ``free will'' [defined
>as the ability to make choices and thus self-determine certain events
>which have an effect on one's life] like ``language ability'' is a
>``power'' that manifests itself in human beings during their lifetime?

There is nothing "logically wrong" with it, but you have completely and
utterly begged the question.  What does "the ability to make choices"
mean?  What does "self-determine" mean?  Does "self" refer to a complex
biological machine, or to a "will" independent of same, or to both?
There are clearly biological machines which perform complex actions
which reflect at least to some degree their initial makeup, growth patterns,
and environmental influences.  Some people argue that is not all that is
involved, and that the other part is "free will".  Some argue that is
all that is involved, and there is no free will.  And others argue
that is all that is involved, but there is free will anyway.
I argue that the degree to which one has free will is the degree to which
causal factors for specific behavior cannot be located (the fact that they
exist is irrelevant).  In other words, I have free will as long as you cannot
prove to me otherwise.  But if you can predict my behavior in a given area
and I find myself unable to avoid the prediction, then I will recognize
lack of free will in that area.  Free will is a sensation, not some absolute
measurable characteristic.  Since free will cannot be defined in a way such
that it can be detected, but people don't understand this, they keep
foolishly arguing about whether it exists.

-- Jim Balter (ima!jim)