Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP
Posting-Version: version B 2.10.2.fluke 9/24/84; site fluke.UUCP
Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!cbosgd!cbdkc1!desoto!packard!hoxna!houxm!vax135!cornell!uw-beaver!ssc-vax!fluke!tron
From: tron@fluke.UUCP (Peter Barbee)
Newsgroups: net.taxes,net.singles,net.flame
Subject: Re: Marriage penalty
Message-ID: <897@vax1.fluke.UUCP>
Date: Mon, 18-Feb-85 16:12:54 EST
Article-I.D.: vax1.897
Posted: Mon Feb 18 16:12:54 1985
Date-Received: Fri, 22-Feb-85 08:12:55 EST
References: <285@calmasd.UUCP> <2297@mit-hermes.ARPA>
Reply-To: tron@fluke.UUCP (Peter Barbee)
Organization: John Fluke Mfg. Co., Inc., Everett, WA
Lines: 25
Xref: watmath net.taxes:688 net.singles:5902 net.flame:8453

>
>	The marriage tax is based on the premise that
>we all live as working-husband-and-housewife couples. The rationale is that
>husbands could avoid paying tax at higher rates by diverting half their income
>to their wives, so the two would each pay at a lower rate. Don't expect that 

I've been quite amused by this rash of postings claiming to know the rationale
behind tax laws.  I always thought the only rule governing the tax laws was
that there was no rationale behind them and that they would always be unfair
to someone.  |-)  |-)

I'm curious as to why people think the government doesn't think both spouses
should work.  Or why they think two wage earning families are penalized
with respect to one wage earning families?

And finally one question (please note that this question actually concerns
morality, unlike tax laws which do not);

	Should a two income family pay less tax than a one income family
	given that both families have identical incomes?

	Why?

Later,
Peter Barbee