Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site oakhill.UUCP Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!unc!mcnc!philabs!cmcl2!seismo!ut-sally!oakhill!davet From: davet@oakhill.UUCP (Dave Trissel) Newsgroups: net.religion Subject: Re: Black's ravings (comment about Sodom) Message-ID: <365@oakhill.UUCP> Date: Mon, 18-Mar-85 05:18:37 EST Article-I.D.: oakhill.365 Posted: Mon Mar 18 05:18:37 1985 Date-Received: Tue, 19-Mar-85 08:14:57 EST References: <863@ames.UUCP> Reply-To: davet@oakhill.UUCP (Dave Trissel) Organization: Motorola Inc. Austin, Tx Lines: 45 Summary: From: mangoe@umcp-cs.UUCP (Charley Wingate) > The verb "know" is the typical KJV euphemism for "have sex". ... From: teitz@aecom.UUCP (Eliyahu Teitz) > The word used in the Bible ( Hebrew version ) is literally, and > we will know them. The word to "know" is used to mean sexual relations > in other places ( Genesis Ch. 4, verse 1 - And Adam knew Eve his wife, > and she conceived and bore Cain ). From: rjb@akgua.UUCP (R.J. Brown [Bob]) > P.S. The word "know" in the earlier English translations used in > this fashion usually means sexual relations. Do erroneous statements such as these represent the typical Christian's understanding of God's word? First of all the hebrew verb "to know" used in the text on Sodom in Genesis 19 occurs 943 times in the Old Testament. In only ten of these occurrences does it have the sense of carnal knowledge. The Greek translations use an expression equivalent to "making the aquaintance of" or "becoming familiar with" which is in marked contrast to the verbs employed in reference to Lot's daughters which clearly refer to sexual behavior. (I would put both Hebrew and Greek versions here but USENET is not as powerful as my Macintosh :-) ) Jesus himself refers to Sodom implying that inhospitality was its undoing (Matt. 10:14-15, Luke 10:10-12.) Ezekiel not only lists the sins of Sodom "pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness.. neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and the needy" (16:48-49 KJV) but contends that they are less serious than the sexual sins of Jerusalem. Ecclesiasticus says God abhorred the Sodomites for their pride (16:8). The bottom line here is that interpretation of the Sodom story in terms of homosexuality is disputed by all later references in the Bible itself. This is only the tip of the iceberg. For those interested (especially Christians that claim they care about truely understanding what God's word says) I suggest reading Chapter Four of John Boswell's "Christianity, Social Tolerance, and Homosexuality" where this came from. As far as that goes, you can read the rest of the book to to get an idea how "Christian" viewpoints can change from season to season on this and other issues. David Trissel {ihnp4,seismo,gatech}!ut-sally!oakhill!davet