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From: garys@bunker.UUCP (Gary M. Samuelson)
Newsgroups: net.religion.christian
Subject: Re: Christian Homosexuals
Message-ID: <756@bunker.UUCP>
Date: Tue, 19-Mar-85 14:30:28 EST
Article-I.D.: bunker.756
Posted: Tue Mar 19 14:30:28 1985
Date-Received: Thu, 21-Mar-85 01:47:22 EST
References: <225@unc.UUCP>
Organization: Bunker Ramo, Trumbull Ct
Lines: 56

> I have met Christians who sin regularly.

There aren't any other kind.

> True, they also repent regularly,
> but the sinning continues.  These people are members of traditional,
> fundamentalist congregations.  Christians have explained this to me
> by maxims such as:
> 
>     "A church is not a museum for saints, but hospital for sinners."
> and
>     "Christians are not perfect -- just forgiven."
> 
> So why should homosexual behavior be treated more harshly than other sins?
> Is it because homosexuals sin in an unconventional way?

No, it's because they don't "repent regularly." (If that is the case.)
If a Christian has fallen into the habit of lying, for example, then
he may not be able to get away from that habit immediately.  Is he
still a liar, though he is a Christian?  Well, probably, but he's
working on it.  Sometimes conversion to Christianity results in
immediate, dramatic changes; other times the changes are gradual.  

I have no problems with a homosexual Christian who, believing that
homosexual acts are sinful, is trying to get away from it.  I
definitely would have a problem with a homosexual Christian, who,
believing that homosexual acts are sinful, makes no effort to change.
I have somewhat less of a problem with a homosexual Christian who
sincerely believes that homosexual acts are not sinful, but that may
be my problem, not necessarily his.

So, in answer to your question, homosexual behavior should not be
treated more harshly than other sins.

Now, since someone will no doubt ask why I consider homosexual
behavior to be sinful, I will try to explain, probably once and
only once, since there has already been enough flaming about it.
Genesis says, "A man shall leave his father and mother and cleave
unto his wife."  It doesn't say he may cleave unto anyone who
suits him, only his wife.  Perhaps a little clearer is I Cor. 7:2,
where Paul says, "Because of the temptation to immorality, let
each man have his own wife and each woman her own husband."  The
implication that the only way to avoid immorality (other than
total abstinence, which Paul agreed was too hard for some) is
heterosexual monogamy seems pretty clear, and such implication
does not depend on any particular translation of "porneia," rendered
"immorality" here.

Someone who disagrees with my conclusion might want to start
a discussion on the principles of hermeneutics.

> 		Frank Silbermann
> 		University of North Carolina

Gary Samuelson
ittvax!bunker!garys