Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.PCS 1/10/84; site hocsm.UUCP Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!mhuxr!ihnp4!drutx!ahuta!hocsm!pad From: pad@hocsm.UUCP (p.a.dunkin) Newsgroups: net.flame,net.nlang Subject: Re: A whole nother story Message-ID: <116@hocsm.UUCP> Date: Mon, 25-Mar-85 23:01:37 EST Article-I.D.: hocsm.116 Posted: Mon Mar 25 23:01:37 1985 Date-Received: Wed, 27-Mar-85 03:09:04 EST Organization: AT&T Information Systems Labs, Holmdel NJ Lines: 21 Xref: watmath net.flame:8968 net.nlang:2779 (libation to the line-eater) Reference: <515@ima.UUCP>, <492@cadovax.UUCP> Prefixes and suffixes are common parts of words in English and related languages. "A whole nother" is an example of a whole nother kind of grammatical phenomenon - the infix. Webster's New Collegiate says that an "infix" is "a derivative or formative element ... inserted in the body of a word." "A whole nother" stretches this point a bit, since it consists of a whole word inserted in another word, but I think that "whole" is still considered an infix. Infixes (or, according to some article I read a long time ago, *printable* infixes) are rare in the English language but more common in others, like Latin. (Perhaps it is because there are so few polite examples of infixes that high school teachers do not consider the construction proper. :-) ) Are there any language scholars out there who know whether infixes are correct-but-unusual or incorrect in English? Pat Dunkin (...!houxm!ahuta!hocsm!pad)