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From: sullivan@harvard.ARPA (John M. Sullivan)
Newsgroups: net.nlang
Subject: Re: "I have it" vs "I have to"
Message-ID: <12@harvard.ARPA>
Date: Fri, 5-Apr-85 15:12:42 EST
Article-I.D.: harvard.12
Posted: Fri Apr  5 15:12:42 1985
Date-Received: Sun, 7-Apr-85 09:23:47 EST
References: <140@ubvax.UUCP> <136@mit-athena.UUCP>
Organization: Harvard University
Lines: 14

> In the the phrase "I have it",
> I pronounce the 'v' voiced; while in "I have to" I pronounce
> the 'v' unvoiced. 
> This might be considered assimilation, but no: "I have time"
> has a voiced 'v'.
> 			John Chambers [...!decvax!mit-athena]

This could just be realted to the position of stress on 'have' in
'have to' and on the direct object in the other examples.
But I agree that the 'have to' use seems like a different word.

-- 
John M. Sullivan
sullivan@harvard