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From: long@oliveb.UUCP (A Panther Modern)
Newsgroups: net.nlang
Subject: Re: "I have it" vs "I have to"
Message-ID: <381@oliveb.UUCP>
Date: Sun, 7-Apr-85 02:37:41 EST
Article-I.D.: oliveb.381
Posted: Sun Apr  7 02:37:41 1985
Date-Received: Wed, 10-Apr-85 06:35:43 EST
Reply-To: long@oliveb.UUCP (A Panther Modern)
Organization: the Sprawl
Lines: 19
Summary: 

sullivan@harvard.ARPA (John M. Sullivan) writes:
| > In the the phrase "I have it",
| > I pronounce the 'v' voiced; while in "I have to" I pronounce
| > the 'v' unvoiced. 
| > This might be considered assimilation, but no: "I have time"
| > has a voiced 'v'.
| > 			John Chambers [...!decvax!mit-athena]
| 
| This could just be realted to the position of stress on 'have' in
| 'have to' and on the direct object in the other examples.
| But I agree that the 'have to' use seems like a different word.

    The 'have to' use is a different word, meaning "must".  Does anyone know
how these two uses of 'have' have evolved?
						Dave Long
-- 
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