Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 5/3/83; site ukc.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!philabs!cmcl2!seismo!mcvax!ukc!ncg From: ncg@ukc.UUCP (N.C.Gale) Newsgroups: net.nlang Subject: Re: Use of THE - US vs Eng Message-ID: <5066@ukc.UUCP> Date: Fri, 26-Apr-85 08:21:48 EST Article-I.D.: ukc.5066 Posted: Fri Apr 26 08:21:48 1985 Date-Received: Tue, 23-Apr-85 00:21:27 EST References: <7200005@hp-pcd.UUCP> <2491@fritz.UUCP> Reply-To: ncg@ukc.UUCP (Nigel Gale) Organization: Computing Laboratory, U of Kent at Canterbury, UK Lines: 26 So the British all use 'the' in strange places (ie Britain), which is - good heavens - different from the American use of the same word. Remember, when you talk about 'the British', you are covering a fairly wide spectrum of speech habits. One example that springs to mind is the accent of Lancashire. There are many expressions and mannerisms peculiar to Lancastrians, one of which is to almost totally omit the word 'the' from their speech. Quite often it is replaced by something quite similar to a glottal stop. But I'm no authority, I live several hundred miles away, and only rarely hear the accent being spoken. Only forty miles, in London, is the homeland of the Cockney accent/slang. That is marginally more similar to the local Kentish accent. Is it surprising that thousands of miles separating two countries should yield the odd difference in the use of the article 'the'?