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From: berger@aecom.UUCP (Mitchell Berger)
Newsgroups: net.religion
Subject: Re: Re: Re: Virgin Birth per duke!nlt
Message-ID: <1535@aecom.UUCP>
Date: Tue, 7-May-85 10:35:51 EDT
Article-I.D.: aecom.1535
Posted: Tue May  7 10:35:51 1985
Date-Received: Thu, 9-May-85 00:17:52 EDT
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Organization: Yeshiva University
Lines: 26

> Matthew used the Greek word for "virgin" (parthenos), which (so I
> have been told; I'm not a linguist) does not have the ambiguity
> of the Hebrew "almah."  

There is no ambiguity, it very clearly doesn't mean virgin. 
Also, the verse is more properly translated:
...and behold the girl *is* pregnant and *is* birthing a son,
and she will call him 'immunuel.[Yeshaiah 7:14]
The prophet later says (v. 17) "Ephraim will remove from upon 
Yehudah (or Judea, read either way) the king of Ashur." Jesus
lived well after the Ashur Empire, he was facing the Romans. 
Also, note it says that a member of the tribe of Ephraim, not
Yehudah (Judah) will be doing this.
And while we are under the subject of tribes... The king of
Yisrael (Israel) is supposed to be from the tribe of Judah
(Yehudah), a claim the begining of Matthew supports (1:1-6).
After tracing his geniology to King Dovid (David) through
Joseph, it then says that he was not a decendent of Joseph,
but of Gd (sorry I can not quote, I don't own an NT). A
decendant of Gd would have no male line to any of the tribes,
nevr mind Yehudah. How can Jesus claim to be of the House of
David?
-- 
Micha Berger
2525 Amsterdam Ave. Suite M406  NY, NY 10033     (212) 781-0756
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