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From: wimp@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP (Jeff Haferman)
Newsgroups: net.sport.baseball
Subject: Re: Re: Six hit scoreless inning?
Message-ID: <594@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP>
Date: Wed, 29-May-85 01:47:26 EDT
Article-I.D.: sphinx.594
Posted: Wed May 29 01:47:26 1985
Date-Received: Fri, 31-May-85 02:51:10 EDT
References: <2301@decwrl.UUCP>
Organization: U. Chicago - Computation Center
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> Hmmm, that gives me an idea.  Suppose a hitter (say one without a great deal
> of confidence) is behind the count 0-2 in the bottom of the ninth with his
> team behind by one run, so it's imperative that he reach base.  The pitcher
> loses control of the ball and it sails far beyond reach of either the batter
> or catcher.  The batter could swing at the ball, striking out, and take off
> for first.  If he beats the throw, he's reached base by striking out
> intentionally!


I believe the rule says that the catcher must drop the ball in order for the 
runner to be able to take off for first.  In this case, if the catcher doesn't
touch the ball,  my guess is that the batter is out on strikes.  However,
what happens if the catcher does touch the ball and it sails away  (either
a passed ball or a wild pitch)?  In this case, I would say the batter is 
eligible to run to first. 

(I tried getting on this way back in Little League...)

-Jeff

WIN TWINS!!!   (They always follow the losing streaks with twice as many wins)