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From: abe@ISM780.UUCP
Newsgroups: net.sport.baseball
Subject: Re: Re: Six hit scoreless inning? (answe
Message-ID: <33400008@ISM780.UUCP>
Date: Tue, 28-May-85 13:15:00 EDT
Article-I.D.: ISM780.33400008
Posted: Tue May 28 13:15:00 1985
Date-Received: Fri, 31-May-85 03:20:09 EDT
References: <293@petfe.UUCP>
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Nf-ID: #R:petfe:-29300:ISM780:33400008:000:1599
Nf-From: ISM780!abe    May 28 13:15:00 1985


>Hmmm, that gives me an idea.  Suppose a hitter (say one without a great deal
>of confidence) is behind the count 0-2 in the bottom of the ninth with his
>team behind by one run, so it's imperative that he reach base.  The pitcher
>loses control of the ball and it sails far beyond reach of either the batter
>or catcher.  The batter could swing at the ball, striking out, and take off
>for first.  If he beats the throw, he's reached base by striking out
>intentionally!

	I've often wondered why I've NEVER seen this in a game.  True,
	it's a bit difficult for a batter to KNOW that a ball will get
	by the catcher (and thus he will risk striking out stupidly),
	but occassionally it should be pretty obvious.  And yet I've
	never seen it.

	In the same vein, I've never seen the following play, although
	it could happen once or twice in every game as far as I can tell:
	A man on first, less than two outs.  Batter hits an infield popup.
	The man on first must stay on first, the batter must run to first
	so that the fielder won't intentionally drop the ball and get a
	double play (infield fly rule is only called when there are >1
	men on base).  However, why wouldn't the fielder intentionally
	drop the ball and make the force at second any time the runner
	on first is a faster/better runner than the batter?  I've never
	seen this done, but it seems perfectly safe and reasonable to me.
	The probability of the ball getting away and the play at 2nd
	being lost is very remote indeed, while wiping out a speedster
	at 1st can be quite important.

					-- Abe Ellenberg
					   cca!ima!abe