Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site mmintl.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!philabs!pwa-b!mmintl!franka From: franka@mmintl.UUCP (Frank Adams) Newsgroups: net.philosophy Subject: Re: Metaphysics Message-ID: <620@mmintl.UUCP> Date: Mon, 26-Aug-85 21:02:52 EDT Article-I.D.: mmintl.620 Posted: Mon Aug 26 21:02:52 1985 Date-Received: Thu, 29-Aug-85 23:42:53 EDT References: <969@sphinx.UChicago.UUCP> <608@mmintl.UUCP> <761@cvl.UUCP> Reply-To: franka@mmintl.UUCP (Frank Adams) Organization: Multimate International, E. Hartford, CT Lines: 37 Summary: mathematics is not reducible to logic In article <761@cvl.UUCP> westling@cvl.UUCP (Mark Westling) writes: > >From my limited knowledge of mathematical philosophy, it looks like the >biggest group wasn't mentioned. > >The idea that numbers exist on their own was put forth last (I think) by >Kant. Kant believed that mathematical reasoning could not be derived from >logic, but rather from intuitive, a priori notions of time and space: >arithmetic arises from time, and geometry arises from space. A major point >was his claim that the figure is essential to all geometric proofs. He also >believed in the necessity of Euclid's axioms, which are naturally based on >intuition. Actually, this is the idea I didn't mention. One can believe in mathematics as a description of the real world; but this leaves little room for set theory. >The school of thought which was not mentioned in the original posting is the >one founded by Frege and expanded by Russell. Two major results provided >the incentive for dismissing Kant's ideas. Riemann and Lobachevsky showed >that, in pure mathematics, non-Euclidean geometry also works, so there is no >a priori need for Euclid's axioms. What happens in the real world is >irrelevant; we're talking strictly about mathematical truth. Peano >strengthened symbolic logic and set theory. Frege took the next step and >reduced mathematics to logic. Russell continued along these lines, adding >that the set theory used in his constructions was also reducible to logic. Sorry, set theory is *not* reducible to logic. The only ones who are willing to treat it as such are the formalists -- who don't care about the existence of the mathematical objects they deal with. If one takes set theory as the foundation, the original question remains: what kind of existence do sets have? >Recently, however, Quine and others have argued that the essential part is >the set theory itself, not the logic. Actually, I think you need both.