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From: wmartin@brl-tgr.ARPA (Will Martin )
Newsgroups: net.politics,net.flame
Subject: Re: American Hostages
Message-ID: <1224@brl-tgr.ARPA>
Date: Wed, 4-Sep-85 15:11:43 EDT
Article-I.D.: brl-tgr.1224
Posted: Wed Sep  4 15:11:43 1985
Date-Received: Fri, 6-Sep-85 05:15:59 EDT
References: <1042@ihlpg.UUCP> <185@pyuxii.UUCP> <11045@rochester.UUCP>
Reply-To: wmartin@brl-tgr.ARPA (Will Martin (DRXAL-RI) <wmartin>)
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In article <10250@ucbvax.ARPA> csanders@ucbvax.UUCP (Craig S. Anderson) writes:
>The other type of challenge is the pre-emptive challenge.  An attorney may
>object to a juror without showing cause using this challenge, and the juror
>is automatically excused.  While an attorney may challenge for cause as much
>as he/she wishes, the lawyer get only a certain amount of pre-emptive
>challenges.  The Supreme Court ruled that an attorney may not use the
>pre-emptive challenge to systematically exclude blacks from the jury.
>
>Craig Anderson

So how is it proven that the lawyer is using his/her pre-emptive
challenges on this basis? Since cause need not be stated, how is the
racial cause determined? Is there a concomitant requirement to state
the cause for challenging any rejected juror, even if this was a
pre-emtive challenge rejection? (That is, does the court record have to
include what reasons the lawyer determined were the grounds for the
pre-emptive challenge? [This means that the lawyers would *have* to
state a reason even for pre-emptive challenges. Is this what this court
decision means?] Couldn't the lawyer simply use income, or job, or
"general demeanor" as his/her reason?)

Will