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Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!bonnie!akgua!akgub!cylixd!charli
From: charli@cylixd.UUCP (Charli Phillips)
Newsgroups: net.legal,net.misc
Subject: Re: Slavery - legal technicalities
Message-ID: <323@cylixd.UUCP>
Date: Thu, 26-Sep-85 10:43:59 EDT
Article-I.D.: cylixd.323
Posted: Thu Sep 26 10:43:59 1985
Date-Received: Sat, 28-Sep-85 07:01:22 EDT
References: <1583@brl-tgr.ARPA> <355@bocklin.UUCP>
Reply-To: charli@cylixd.UUCP (Charli Phillips)
Distribution: net
Organization: RCA Cylix Communications , Memphis, TN
Lines: 18
Xref: watmath net.legal:2388 net.misc:8612
Summary: 

>I'm also interested in this morbid topic.  When were the
>children of slaves the property of the owner?  Suppose the mother
>is free and the father a slave.  Or vice versa.  Or the parents
>are both slaves but the property of two different slaveholders.
>
>Alan Wendt

I believe that in Catholic countries, the children took the status
of their father.  That is, if a female slave had children by the
male slave-owner, the children were the free (albeit bastard) children
of the slave-owner.  In Protestant countries, the children took the
status of their mother:  the children of slave women were slaves,
regardless of the father.

I will admit this is based on a shakey recollection of some class-work
I did long, long ago, so feel free to correct me if I'm wrong.

		charli


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