Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.3 4.3bsd-beta 6/6/85; site l5.uucp Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!gamma!epsilon!zeta!sabre!petrus!bellcore!decvax!decwrl!sun!l5!laura From: laura@l5.uucp (Laura Creighton) Newsgroups: net.religion,net.religion.christian Subject: Re: How come God doesn't affect Dave? Message-ID: <177@l5.uucp> Date: Sun, 6-Oct-85 16:25:33 EDT Article-I.D.: l5.177 Posted: Sun Oct 6 16:25:33 1985 Date-Received: Tue, 8-Oct-85 04:23:56 EDT References: <2214@sdcc6.UUCP> <583@k.cs.cmu.edu.ARPA> <12039@rochester.UUCP> Reply-To: laura@l5.UUCP (Laura Creighton) Organization: Ell-Five [Consultants], San Francisco Lines: 48 Xref: watmath net.religion:7910 net.religion.christian:1413 In article <12039@rochester.UUCP> ray@rochester.UUCP (Ray Frank) writes: > >What in effect you are advocating here is that it is reasonable under the >proper circumstances for a person to behave in a manner that was originally >condemned as improper behavior. A judges B, A's behavior is abominable, >but B in turn judging A is OK? What is not evident here is whether or not >A was justified and B was not. Or whether B's behavior in any case is just >as abominable as A's. This is one of the arguments of the anti-capital >punishment groups. They feel that under no circumstances should a murderer >be murdered in turn by a legal system. They feel murder by any other name >is still murder, no ifs, ands, or buts or buts about it. > >Bottom line here is that your argument is by no means a cut and dry issue. >The ends do not always justify the means. NO! NO! NO! (sorry about that). This is just one of the larger problems that moral philosophers have in getting their point across. What you are claiming is that it is possible to look at events from any point-in-time and judge. This is not usually what is believed at all. If A kills B, according to this theory, then it is murder because that is what murder is. I don't buy it, and I don't know very many moral philosophers who do. If A kills B in self-defense, then it is *not* murder, simply because B, in threatening A with death has stepped outside of the ``normal'' condition and all moral judgements of A's actions will have to consider that A now has *less freedom of action* than before. In the above example, suppose B robs A's grocery store and threatens A. A fears for his life but manages to shoot B. Assume that nothing (like starvation) forced B to rob A. Then B had a wide variety of choices which he could have made and he chose to rob and threaten A. This action is immoral. A, however, had many fewer options - in fact, A believed that his only options were to shoot B or to die. Given this, most moral philosophers (and me) would call A's actions moral. Note that if A had always harbored a grudge against B and decided to kill B, not because A felt threatened, but because he wanted to get away with it, my moral judgement would be different. Also, if after killing B, A proceeded to rob him of his (B's) wallet, then I would judge A to be guilty of robbery, since A is not constrained to do this. Discussions of morality are a lot of fun. But please remember that few people think that you can view events in isolation of prior events and come up with meaningful moral judgements. -- Laura Creighton (note new address!) sun!l5!laura (that is ell-five, not fifteen) l5!laura@lll-crg.arpa