Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site ttidcb.UUCP Path: utzoo!linus!philabs!ttidca!ttidcb!pumphrey From: pumphrey@ttidcb.UUCP (Larry Pumphrey) Newsgroups: net.sport.baseball Subject: An infield-fly-rule question Message-ID: <475@ttidcb.UUCP> Date: Tue, 15-Oct-85 09:01:31 EDT Article-I.D.: ttidcb.475 Posted: Tue Oct 15 09:01:31 1985 Date-Received: Fri, 18-Oct-85 20:38:26 EDT Organization: TTI, Santa Monica, CA. Lines: 28 An interesting situation occurred in the NLCS game of Thursday 10/10 when Ozzie Smith was on first base with one out. Andujar was the batter and was trying to sacrifice Smith over to second base when he bunted a pop-up to the Dodger pitcher, Hersheiser, who intentionally allowed the bunt to drop (he could have caught the ball) and then threw the ball to second to start a successful inning ending double play. The situation did not call for the infield fly rule because nobody was on second base. My question is the following: The infield fly rule was created to disallow double plays caused by intentionally dropped pop flies. The rule states that baserunners must be on first _and_ second base with less than two outs for the rule to apply. Presumably, the reason that the IF rule does not apply with only first base occupied is that the batter should be able to reach first base before a pop fly ball is caught, thus eliminating the possibility of a double play. The previously described NLCS situation did not seem to fall into this category as the arc of the pop bunt was not of sufficient height to permit Andujar to reach first base. I guess what I'm talking about is it appears that the baseball rules committee should expand the scope of the infield fly rule to cover special situations with only a baserunner at first and less than two outs. For example, consider the possibility that an infielder intentionally drops a line drive for an error in order to get a double play. Should the IF rule be expanded to cover special situations with only first base occupied, when in the _judgement_ of the umpire the batter had no chance to reach first base (for a fielder's choice) when a fly ball is intentionally dropped or allowed to hit the ground first. What do all you basenetters think about this?