Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.2 9/17/84; site milford.UUCP Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!unc!mcnc!decvax!ittatc!milford!bill From: bill@milford.UUCP (bill) Newsgroups: net.math Subject: Re: Can you prove/disprove this? Message-ID: <112@milford.UUCP> Date: Mon, 2-Dec-85 10:39:38 EST Article-I.D.: milford.112 Posted: Mon Dec 2 10:39:38 1985 Date-Received: Thu, 5-Dec-85 05:38:59 EST References: <34080@lanl.ARPA> <526@klipper.UUCP> Distribution: net Organization: Telecomp,Inc. , Milford Ct. Lines: 36 > In article <34080@lanl.ARPA> dxm@lanl.ARPA writes: > I believe, it is much harder to proof that all even perfect numbers > are of this form, which result is due to Euler if I'm not mistaking. > Not >that< much harder: let s(n) = the sum of the divisors of n, so s(n) = 2n if and only if n is 'perfect'. We are given that 2n = s(n) and n = k*2^a; so k*2^(a+1) = s(n) = ((2^(a+1)) - 1)*s(k) or s(k) = (k*2^(a+1)) ----------- (2^(a+1)-1) from (k*(2^(a+1)) = (k*(2^(a+1)) - k + k gives: s(k) = k + k ----------- (2^(a+1) - 1) and both parts of the right side divide k (*) but s(k) is the sum of the divisors of k (including k); so there are only two divisors and 1 = (k/(2^(a+1) -1)) or k = 2^(a+1) - 1 is prime. To push on to bigger and better things beyond elementary algebra: a)The proof breaks for n odd at the line marked (*) because then the two parts of the right side represent the same number (k), and the question of odd perfect numbers is still up in the air. b)Anyone want to investigate values n for which the equation s(x) - x = n has no solutions? n=5 apparently is the only odd 'untouchable' number. c)Generalize perfect numbers from s(n) = 2*n to s(n) = i*n; is there any similar formulae for these i-ply perfect numbers? Is there an i for which it can be proven there are an infinite number of i-ply perfect numbers? Is there an upper bound to i?