Relay-Version: version B 2.10 5/3/83; site utzoo.UUCP Posting-Version: version B 2.10.1 6/24/83; site alice.UUCP Path: utzoo!watmath!clyde!burl!ulysses!allegra!alice!ark From: ark@alice.UucP (Andrew Koenig) Newsgroups: net.religion,net.legal Subject: Re: query on music copyright Message-ID: <4857@alice.UUCP> Date: Wed, 22-Jan-86 16:56:16 EST Article-I.D.: alice.4857 Posted: Wed Jan 22 16:56:16 1986 Date-Received: Thu, 23-Jan-86 21:45:44 EST References: <42@valid.UUCP> Organization: Bell Labs, Murray Hill Lines: 19 Xref: watmath net.religion:8996 net.legal:2769 > No, you don't have to pay the author unless you yourself are receiving money > for performing the work. The author gets a share of the money you receive > for performing the work (which is called a royalty). What is your evidence for this? The articles I have read about copyright law all say that it makes no difference whether you sell copies of a thing or not -- the illegal activity is making the copy, regardless of the use to which you put it. Public performance of a work, regardless of whether it is for profit or not, is making a copy. > I myself perform music in church quite frequently, and whenever possible I > try to use originals instead of photocopies. But if I already own a copy > and I photocopy it to make page-turning easier or some other reason, do you > think it's proper to prosecute me for it? That's really up to the copyright holder. Suppose you copy a work to make page-turning easier and then you sell the copies afterwards? Remember that the copyright holder can't stop you from selling the copies once you've made them, but can stop you from making them.